1001 Errors in the Christian Bible

Luke -- Errors 277-286

#277

The third Gospel listed in Christian Bibles, Luke, was written anonymously. The title "Luke" was added by the Church long after the Gospel was written.

#278

Luke 1: (KJV)

5 “THERE was in the days of Herod, the king of Judaea”

THERE’S a consensus among Bible scholars that “Luke” is referring to Herod the Great here and this Herod was King of all Israel and not just Judaea. Herod the Great’s son, Archelaus, became king of just Judea so we likely have an anachronistic description right at the start from the anonymous guy who assured the unknown Theophilus that his report was accurate and orderly. Lukee! Ya got sum splainin ta do.

#279

Luke 1: (KJV)

10 “And the whole multitude of the people were praying without at the time of incense.”

We have the same issue with the author of Luke here that we have with all the Gospellers. Were they familiar with the details of Jewish Law for the time they are describing? The meaning of Luke’s Greek above is that people were praying outside of the area where Zacharias was burning incense but there wouldn’t have been enough room for a group of people to pray where Zacharias was. Maybe the author knew this but thought some of his audience wouldn’t. Let’s give him the benefit of the doubt here. But there is no evidence in Jewish writings that group prayer was done during the burning of incense at the Temple. Splain it Lukee.

#280

Luke 1: (KJV)

15 “For he shall be great in the sight of the Lord, and shall drink neither wine nor strong drink; and he shall be filled with the Holy Ghost, even from his mother's womb.”

Regarding “the Holy Ghost” above there is no definite article “the” in the Greek. The only translation I’ve seen that so much as has “the” in parentheses is Darby. Obviously translators are trying to support the conception (pun intended) of the Trinity by describing “the spirit” as a definite entity. We saw the same thing in “Matthew”. Comically, Christian commentators will argue that the same lack of a definite article in Matthew supports that “Luke” meant “the” because Matthew didn’t use it either and Matthew meant “the”. When looking at apologist explanations that when Matthew and Luke didn’t use the definite article they meant to use the definite article expect really long ones.

#281

Luke 1: (KJV)

21 “And the people waited for Zacharias, and marvelled that he tarried so long in the temple.”

Same type problem as #280. The author of “Luke” appears to be unfamiliar with the details of Temple ceremony. Luke implies that Zacharias was performing his duties alone but according to Jewish writings Priests would have performed these functions together.

#282

Luke 1: (KJV)

26 “And in the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent from God unto a city of Galilee, named Nazareth,”

Compare to “Mark”

“ “

Compare to Matthew:

1:20: (KJV) “But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the LORD appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.” And

2:22: (KJV) “But when he heard that Archelaus did reign in Judaea in the room of his father Herod, he was afraid to go thither: notwithstanding, being warned of God in a dream, he turned aside into the parts of Galilee:”

According to “Luke” the angel was sent to Nazareth and according to “Matthew” the angel was sent to Bethlehem. The Biblical city of Nazareth is unknown in Jewish writings and is located southnorth of Luke 1:26 and eastwest of Matthew 1:20.

#283

Luke 1: (KJV)

28 “And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.”

For the phrase “the Lord is with thee” above, the Greek lacks a verb (is) so it’s unclear what is meant. “The Lord is with thee” is an acceptable translation but it could also mean the blessing, “The Lord be with you”. Of the major Christian translations only Young’s and Darby have “is” in brackets.

#284

Luke 1: (KJV)

28 “And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, thou that art highly favoured, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.”

Compare to Matthew:

1:20: (KJV) “But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the LORD appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.”

Luke sez the angel appeared to Mary while Matthew says the angel appeared to Joseph. Luke and Matthew’s problem here is that they didn’t have an infancy narrative in “Mark” to follow. As “Luke” was likely written after “Matthew” it displays a stronger Gentile influence and the more natural elements of a Jewish story become increasingly supernatural like the Gentile stories. Matthew’s angel in a dream becomes a live angel in Luke who even has a name. “Luke” considered “Matthew’s” story “too Jewish”.

#285

Luke 1: (KJV)

31 “And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.”

Compare to Matthew 1: (KJV)

21 “And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.”

“Shall call his name” is a figure of speech for name. In “Luke” Mary is commanded to name Jesus Jesus. In “Matthew” Joseph is commanded to name Jesus Jesus.

#286

Luke 1: (KJV)

32 “He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest:”

For “the Son” above there is no “the” in the Greek. “Luke” may have meant “a son”. Of the moderns, only Young’s and Darby omit “the”. Interestingly “Luke” claims no prophecy fulfillment of Isaiah 7:14 here regarding a virgin birth.

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