1001 Errors in the Christian Bible
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John -- Errors 572-578
#572
John 10: (KJV)
18 “No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have
power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment
have I received of my Father.”
The manuscript evidence is about even but two of the three oldest manuscripts
have “took” (past tense) instead of “takes” and Sinaiticus
was changed from “took” to “takes”. There are other
instances where “John” has done the same (has Jesus speak in
the past tense of something which wouldn’t have happened at that
point in the historical narrative) and there is good Bible scholar support
for “took” as original. Use of the past tense by the author
of “John” is very good evidence that “John” is primarily
religious propaganda and not a historical narrative as first proposed
by Bultmann a mere 1800 years after Christian Bible scholars first started
studying “John”. Almost all moderns use the present tense here.
# 573
John 10: (KJV)
28 “And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish,
neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand.”
After Israel and every country next to it went from being Christian to
non-Christian I think it’s safe to say this is a false prophecy and
then some.
# 574
John 10: (KJV)
29 “My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no
man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand.”
A majority of moderns mistranslate as KJV does above “my Father’s
hand” which should be “the Father’s hand”. As is common
the wicked and evil translators are overstating the Father and son relationship
of God and Jesus and understating the Father and son relationship of everyone
else.
# 575
John 10: (KJV)
32 “Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from
my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?”
The manuscript evidence indicates “the father” instead of “my
father” which a majority of moderns use. See how the text has mutated
for important theological points? What do you think happened during the
first 300 years before most of the extant manuscript evidence? If you
said, “God knows” you’d be correct.
# 576
John 10: (KJV)
30 “I and the Father are one."
31The Jews picked up stones again to stone him. 32Jesus answered them,
"I have shown you many good works from the Father; for which of them
are you going to stone me?" 33The Jews answered him, "It is
not for a good work that we are going to stone you but for blasphemy,
because you, being a man, make yourself God." 34Jesus answered them,
"Is it not written in your Law, 'I said, you are gods'? 35 If he
called them gods to whom the word of God came--and Scripture cannot be
broken-- 36 do you say of him whom the Father consecrated and sent into
the world, 'You are blaspheming,' because I said, 'I am the Son of God'?”
This story is interesting. “The Jews” accuse Jesus of claiming
to literally be God and Jesus defends himself as only claiming to figuratively
be a divine son of God. The traditional Christian take on this is to claim
that the author intended to show Jesus literally as God because this was
“The Jews” understanding as opposed to showing Jesus to figuratively
be a divine son of God because this was Jesus’ explanation. Weird.
This avoidance of the likely intent of the author is reflected in the
mistranslation by almost all moderns of “I am the Son of God”
at the end which should be “I am son of the God” (in the Greek
the definite article is before “God”).
# 577
John 10: (KJV)
41 “And many resorted unto him, and said, John did no miracle:
but all things that John spake of this man were true.”
Compare to John 1: (KJV)
29 “The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith,
Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world.
30 This is he of whom I said, After me cometh a man which is preferred
before me: for he was before me.
31 And I knew him not: but that he should be made manifest to Israel,
therefore am I come baptizing with water.
32 And John bare record, saying, I saw the Spirit descending from heaven
like a dove, and it abode upon him.
33 And I knew him not: but he that sent me to baptize with water, the
same said unto me, Upon whom thou shalt see the Spirit descending, and
remaining on him, the same is he which baptizeth with the Holy Ghost.”
The “many” say that Jesus did everything John said he would
but the two things John predicted, that Jesus would take away the sins
of the world and baptize with holy spirit, hadn’t happened at this
point in the narrative. This isn’t the audience of Jesus’ speaking,
it’s the audience of “John” (anachronistic).
# 578
John 12: (KJV)
1 “Then Jesus six days before the passover came to Bethany, where
Lazarus was, which had been dead, whom he raised from the dead.”
Compare to Matthew 26: (KJV)
1 “And it came to pass, when Jesus had finished all these sayings,
he said unto his disciples,
2 Ye know that after two days is the feast of the passover, and the Son
of man is betrayed to be crucified.
3 Then assembled together the chief priests, and the scribes, and the
elders of the people, unto the palace of the high priest, who was called
Caiaphas,
4 And consulted that they might take Jesus by subtilty, and kill him.
5 But they said, Not on the feast day, lest there be an uproar among the
people.
6 Now when Jesus was in Bethany, in the house of Simon the leper,”
“John’s” Jesus came to Bethany 6 days before Passover.
“Matthew’s” Jesus arrived 4 days later.